NCERT Based MCQ for NEET Biology. We covered all the NCERT Based MCQ for NEET Biology in this post for free so that you can practice well for the exam.
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NCERT Based MCQ for NEET Biology for Students
Which of the following statement(s) is/are INCORRECT?
(A) During the development of the embryo, the zygote undergoes mitosis only.
(B) In the process of embryogenesis, the zygote undergoes mitotic cell division and cell differentiation.
(C) In organisms belonging to the group’s fungi and algae, the zygote develops a thick wall.
(D) In organisms with haplontic life cycles, diploid spores are formed that grow in diploid individuals.
Option d – In organisms with haplontic life cycles, diploid spores are formed that grow in diploid individuals.
………. stimulates Leydig cells to synthesize and secrete androgens. ( NCERT Based MCQ for NEET Biology )
(A) FSH
(B) LH
(C) PL
(D) ATH
Option b – LH
The gametes of Fucus (an alga) are
(A) isogametes
(B) heterogametes
(C) homogametes
(D) any of these
Option b – heterogametes
Which of the following is a diploid cell? ( NCERT Based MCQ for NEET Biology )
(A) Secondary spermatocyte
(B) Primary spermatocyte
(C) Secondary oocyte
(D) Spermatid
Option b – Primary spermatocyte
Which of the following is NOT a bisexual animal?
(A) Tapeworm
(B) Leech
(C) Sponge
(D) Ascaris
Option d – Ascaris
Which of the following type of pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grain to the stigma? ( NCERT Based MCQ for NEET Biology )
(A) Autogamy
(B) Xenogamy
(C) Geitonogamy
(D) Cleistogamy
Option b – Xenogamy
Progestasert is a/an
(A) hormone-releasing IUD
(B) non-medicated IUD
(C) contraceptive pill
(D) copper releasing IUD
Option a – hormone-releasing IUD
Identify the INCORRECT statement. ( NCERT Based MCQ for NEET Biology )
(A) Gametogenesis is a pre-fertilization event.
(B) In organisms exhibiting internal fertilization, the male gametes are motile.
(C) In seed plants, the non-motile male gametes are carried to the female gamete by pollen tubes.
(D) In the case of external fertilization, less number of male gametes are formed as compared to female gametes.
Option d – In the case of external fertilization, less number of male gametes are formed as compared to female gametes.
Ovulation occurs due to sudden
(A) Sudden decrease in FSH level
(B) LH surge
(C) Reduced LH levels
(D) Increase in progesterone level
Option b – LH surge
External fertilization occurs in ( NCERT Based MCQ for NEET Biology )
(A) Turtle
(B) Psittacula
(C) Frog
(D) Equisetum
Option c – Frog
Calculate the total number of pollen grains produced by a dithecous anther containing 150 microspore mother cells in each pollen sac.
(A) 2400
(B) 600
(C) 6000
(D) 75
Option a – 2400
The fusion of ovum and sperm during IVF occurs in the ( NCERT Based MCQ for NEET Biology )
(A) fallopian tube
(B) uterus
(C) vagina
(D) culture medium
Option d – culture medium
Select the INCORRECT statement from the following.
(A) In a young anther, sporogenous tissue is diploid in nature.
(B) Each cell of sporogenous tissue is capable of giving rise to a microspore tetrad.
(C) Each pollen mother cell undergoes repetitive mitotic divisions to form microspores.
(D) Microspores are arranged in a cluster of four cells hence called microspore tetrad.
Option c – Each pollen mother cell undergoes repetitive mitotic divisions to form microspores.
What is the correct sequence of spermatogenesis? ( NCERT Based MCQ for NEET Biology )
(A) Spermatids, spermatocytes, spermatogonia, spermatozoa
(B) Spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatids, spermatozoa
(C) Spermatogonia, spermatozoa, spermatocytes, spermatids
(D) Spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatozoa, spermatids
Option b – Spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatids, spermatozoa
Read the following statements and select the correct option. Statement I: In lower organisms, asexual reproduction takes place through the fusion of male and female gametes. Statement II: In asexual reproduction, offsprings arise from a single organism.
(A) Statement I is correct, and statement II is incorrect.
(B) Statement I is incorrect, and statement II is correct.
(C) Both statements I and II are correct.
(D) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
Option b – Statement I is incorrect, and statement II is correct.
The exine of the pollen grain is made up of …….. which is one of the most resistant organic materials known. ( NCERT Based MCQ for NEET Biology )
(A) cellulose
(B) pectin
(C) lignin
(D) sporopollenin
Option d – sporopollenin
Leydig cells secrete which of the following hormone?
(A) Glucagon
(B) LH
(C) Progesterone
(D) Androgens
Option d – Androgens
Pick the out one out with respect to organisms that do not exhibit the oestrus cycle. ( NCERT Based MCQ for NEET Biology )
(A) Monkeys
(B) Dogs
(C) Rats
(D) Sheeps
Option a – Monkeys
Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement I: Pollen grains of some plants cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people. Statement II: Pollen grains can be stored in liquid nitrogen for years and can be used in crop breeding programs.
(A) Statement I is correct, while statement II is incorrect
(B) Statement II is correct, while statement I is incorrect
(C) Both statements I and II are correct
(D) Both statements I and II are incorrect
Option c – Both statements I and II are correct
Identify the INCORRECT match with respect to vegetative propagules in plants. ( NCERT Based MCQ for NEET Biology )
(A) Ginger – Rhizome
(B) Agave – Bulbil
(C) Bryophyllum – Leaf buds
(D) Water Hyacinth – Tuber
Option d – Water Hyacinth – Tuber
Select the INCORRECT statement with respect to tapetum.
(A) It is the innermost wall layer of the microsporangium.
(B) It mainly performs the function of protection.
(C) Cells of tapetum dense possess cytoplasm.
(D) Developing pollen grains get nourishment from tapetum.
Option b – It mainly performs the function of protection.
In which of the following type of natural selection, do more individuals acquire mean character value? ( NCERT Based MCQ for NEET Biology )
(A) Stabilizing
(B) Directional
(C) Disruptive
(D) Diversifying
Option a – Stabilizing
A doctor identifies symptoms of sustained high fever (39° to 40°C), weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache, and loss of appetite. The conclusion is that the patient is infected by
(A) pneumonia
(B) typhoid
(C) ascariasis
(D) elephantiasis
Option b – typhoid
Identify the CORRECT statement regarding the human respiratory system. ( NCERT Based MCQ for NEET Biology )
(A) The larynx serves as a common passage for food and air.
(B) Each terminal bronchiole gives rise to alveolus.
(C) Lungs are enclosed by a single-layered pericardium to prevent friction of lungs with adjacent organs.
(D) The trachea divides at the level of the 7th thoracic vertebra to form the right and left primary bronchi.
Option b – Each terminal bronchiole gives rise to alveolus.
Amphibians evolved into
(A) lobe-fined fish
(B) reptiles
(C) jawless vertebrates
(D) hemichordates
Option b – reptiles
(A) typhoid and the common cold
(B) AIDS and the common cold
(C) pneumonia and ringworm.
(D) pneumonia and typhoid
Option b – AIDS and the common cold
Which of the following is NOT a function of the conducting part of the human respiratory system?
(A) Transport of atmospheric air to the alveoli
(B) Humidification of air
(C) Removal of foreign particles from the air
(D) Diffusion of O₂ and CO₂ between blood and atmospheric air
Option d – Diffusion of O₂ and CO₂ between blood and atmospheric air
Read the following statements and select the correct option. Statement I: About 65 mya, dinosaurs disappeared from the earth. Statement II: Ichthyosaurs were fish-like reptiles.
(A) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(B) Statement II is correct and statement I is incorrect.
(C) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(D) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
Option c – Both statement I and statement II are correct.
……… is commonly called a smack.
(A) Cocaine
(B) Heroin
(C) Opioid
(D) Cannabinoid
Option b – Heroin
Respiration through a network of tracheal tubes occurs in
(A) coelenterates
(B) insects
(C) flatworms
(D) poriferans
Option b – insects
According to French naturalist Lamarck
(A) only minor variations are inheritable.
(B) evolution of life forms had occurred but was driven by the use and disuse of organs.
(C) the process of evolution is gradual.
(D) mutations are random and directionless which cause evolution.
Option b – evolution of life forms had occurred but was driven by the use and disuse of organs.
The most serious and fatal type of malaria is caused by
(A) P. falciparum
(B) P.vivax
(C) P.malaria
(D) all of these
Option a – P. falciparum
Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around ……… ml O₂ to the tissues under normal physiological conditions.
(A) 5
(B) 25
(C) 45
(D) 65
Option a – 5
Which of the following statement INCORRECT?
(A) Homo sapiens arose during the ice age between 75,000-10,000 years ago.
(B) The fossils of Homo erectus were discovered in Java in 1891.
(C) Homo habilis was known as the first human-like hominid.
(D) The primate Dryopithecus was more man-like.
Option d – The primate Dryopithecus was more man-like.
In which of the following organ immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes?
(A) Spleen
(B) Lymph nodes
(C) Peyer’s patches of the small intestine
(D) Thymus
Option d – Thymus
The diffusion membrane is made of these three layers,
(A) squamous epithelium
(B) endothelium of alveolar capillaries
(C) basement substance in between squamous epithelium and endothelium of alveolar capillaries
(D) cuboidal epithelium
Option d – cuboidal epithelium
Read the following statements and select the correct option. i. In allopatric speciation, the original population. becomes separated spatially because of geographical barriers, into two or more groups. ii. Geographical isolation occurs when the original population is separated into two or more groups by geographical barriers. iii. Temporal isolation occurs due to environmental factors like photoperiod, temperature, and humidity. iv. Spatial isolation occurs due to differences in the morphological structures of reproductive organs.
(A) i,ii and iv are correct.
(B) ii and iii are incorrect.
(C) i and iii are incorrect.
(D) i, ii and iii are correct.
Option d – i, ii and iii are correct.
Which of the following plants dominated the Jurassic period?
(A) Ginkgos
(B) Progymnosperms
(C) Conifers
(D) Sphenopsoids
Option c – Conifers
Which of the following is a feature of Neanderthal man?
(A) Used hides to protect their body
(B) Cranial capacity 900cc
(C) Hunted with stone weapons
(D) Did not eat meat
Option a – Used hides to protect their body
A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is
(A) ELISA
(B) Widal test
(C) Computed tomography
(D) Magnetic resonance imaging
Option a – ELISA
The solubility of CO₂ in the blood is ………. times higher than that of O₂.
(A) 10-15
(B) 20-25
(C) 80-90
(D) 40-50
Option b – 20-25
Select the mismatch. ( Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 NEET Questions )
(A) Industrial melanism – Melanised moths
(B) Adaptive radiation – Darwin’s finches
(C) Homologous organs – Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita
(D) Intra-specific struggle – Struggle between sheep, horse, and cow
Option d – Intra-specific struggle – Struggle between sheep, horse, and cow
Identify the CORRECT statement.
(A) Antibody-bound mast cells release histamine and serotonin.
(B) When a person is exposed to allergens, his body secretes IgM.
(C) Adrenaline and steroids cannot be used to reduce the symptoms of allergy.
(D) Allergies are contagious.
Option a – Antibody-bound mast cells release histamine and serotonin.
The volume of air that remains in the lungs after a normal expiration is
(A) total lung capacity
(B) functional residual capacity
(C) vital capacity
(D) inspiratory capacity
Option b – functional residual capacity
During inspiration ( Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 NEET Questions )
(A) intra-pulmonary pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure.
(B) intra-pulmonary pressure is lower than atmospheric pressure.
(C) diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax.
(D) diaphragm contracts and intercostal muscles relax.
Option b – intra-pulmonary pressure is lower than atmospheric pressure.
How many phenotypes are produced in the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross of a pea plant?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6
Option c – 4
The number of ATP and NADPH molecules formed during the Calvin cycle are
(A) 18;12
(B) 6;6
(C) 0;0
(D) 18;18
Option c – 0;0
Identify the CORRECT statement regarding the law of segregation.
(A) It explains that the members of the allelic pair show blending.
(B) It explains that in a pair of dissimilar factors, one of the alleles is not expressed at all.
(C) It explains that two alleles for contrasting characters do not blend but segregate or separate out during gamete formation.
(D) It explains that only one of the parental characters is expressed in a monohybrid cross.
Option c – It explains that two alleles for contrasting characters do not blend but segregate or separate out during gamete formation.
Consider one turn of the Calvin cycle and select the INCORRECT statement.
(A) During the carboxylation step of the Calvin cycle, 2 molecules of 3-PGA are formed.
(B) The reduction step of the Calvin cycle involves the utilization of 2 molecules of ATP for the phosphorylation of 3-PGA.
(C) The reduction step of the Calvin cycle involves the utilization of 2 molecules of NADPH for the reduction of per CO₂ molecule fixed.
(D) The regeneration step of the Calvin cycle requires 3 ATP and 2 NADPH for phosphorylation to form RuBP.
Option d – The regeneration step of the Calvin cycle requires 3 ATP and 2 NADPH for phosphorylation to form RuBP.
Which of the following is NOT true with respect to respiration?
(A) is an energy-liberating process.
(B) Respiration is an enzymatically controlled process.
(C) It involves the breakdown of sugar in a stepwise manner.
(D) In respiration, ATP is formed in one large oxidation reaction.
Option d – In respiration, ATP is formed in one large oxidation reaction.
Human height and skin color is an examples of
(A) Multiple allelism
(B) Polygenic inheritance
(C) Incomplete dominance
(D) Pleiotropy
Option b – Polygenic inheritance
Which of the following is energy yielding reaction in glycolysis?
(A) Glucose to glucose -6- phosphate
(B) Fructose -6- phosphate to Fructose-1, 6- bisphosphate
(C) 2-Phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate
(D) Phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvic acid
Option d – Phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvic acid
The first stable compound of the C3 pathway is
(A) Triose phosphate
(B) Ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate
(C) 3-Phosphoglycerate
(D) Oxalo Acetic Acid
Option c – 3-Phosphoglycerate
The first and last stages of aerobic respiration are ……… respectively.
(A) Fermentation and Terminal oxidation
(B) Glycolysis and ETS
(C) Oxidative decarboxylation and Krebs’ cycle
(D) Krebs’ cycle and Glycolysis
Option b – Glycolysis and ETS
Complete the given analogy with respect to the number of ATP formed during ETS. One molecule of NADH+H : 3 ATP :: One molecule of FADH₂ : ……..
(A) 4 ATP
(B) 1 ATP
(C) 8 ATP
(D) 2 ATP
Option d – 2 ATP
Select the CORRECT statement with respect to Hatch and Slack pathway.
(A) C4 acid is broken down in bundle sheath cells to release CO₂ and 3-carbon molecules.
(B) The Primary CO₂ acceptor is located in the bundle sheath cell.
(C) Malic acid or aspartic acid is formed in bundle sheath cells.
(D) Hatch and Slack pathway involves only the C4 cycle and not the C3 cycle.
Option a – C4 acid is broken down in bundle sheath cells to release CO₂ and 3-carbon molecules.
The respiratory quotient is the ratio of
(A) Volume of oxygen consumed/Volume of carbon dioxide evolved
(B) Volume of carbon dioxide consumed/Volume of oxygen evolved
(C) Volume of carbon dioxide evolved/Volume of oxygen consumed
(D) Volume of oxygen evolved/Volume of carbon dioxide consumed
Option c – Volume of carbon dioxide evolved/Volume of oxygen consumed
Select the INCORRECT statement with respect to photorespiration.
(A) In C4 plants, photorespiration does not occur. that increases
(B) C4 plants have a mechanism for the concentration of CO₂ in bundle sheath cells
(C) Due to more concentration of CO₂ in bundle sheath cells, RuBisCO functions as an oxygenase.
(D) Photorespiration is considered a wasteful process in C3 plants.
Option c – Due to more concentration of CO₂ in bundle sheath cells, RuBisCO functions as an oxygenase.
Select the INCORRECT statement/s about aerobic respiration. i. It requires pyruvic acid which is a final product of glycolysis. ii. It results in the incomplete oxidation of glucose to carbon dioxide and water. iii. It takes place in the cytosol. iv. It requires oxygen for its function.
(A) i. and iv.
(B) ii, iii. and iv.
(C) ii. and iii.
(D) i. and ii.
Option c – ii. and iii.
Read the given statements with reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis. (i) C3 and C4 plants respond differently to CO₂ concentration. (ii) Increasing atmospheric CO₂ concentration beyond 0.07% can enhance the CO₂ fixation rate. (iii) C3 plants respond to higher temperatures with enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants have much lower temperature optimum. The correct statement/s is/are
(A) Statement (i) and (iii)
(B) Statement (ii)
(C) Statement (i)
(D) All the given statements are correct
Option c – Statement (i)
Which of the following statement is correct with respect to the process of respiration?
(A) 2 PGAL during glycolysis and none of the PGAL are produced in Krebs’ cycle
(B) 4 PGAL during glycolysis and 4 Pyruvic acids are produced in Krebs’ cycle
(C) 2 Pyruvic acids are produced in Krebs’ cycle and none of the PGAL is produced during glycolysis.
(D) PGAL is not produced during respiratory events.
Option a – 2 PGAL during glycolysis and none of the PGAL are produced in Krebs’ cycle
CO₂ enters the photosynthetic pathway during …….. reaction, which occurs in ………..
(A) light reaction, grana
(B) dark reaction, stroma
(C) photosystem I, thylakoid membrane
(D) photosystem II, grana
Option b – dark reaction, stroma
When fatty acid tripalmitin is used as a respiratory substrate, RQ is
(A) always zero
(B) always less than 1
(C) always more than 1
(D) always 0.2
Option b – always less than 1
Which of the following is INCORRECT in the case of individuals suffering from Turner’s syndrome?
(A) They possess 47 chromosomes instead of 46.
(B) The individuals with this syndrome are phenotypically female.
(C) These individuals have short stature, webbed neck, and low posterior hairline.
(D) These individuals show abnormal sexual development.
Option a – They possess 47 chromosomes instead of 46.
C4 plants differ from C3 plants due to the presence of ( Chapter 1 Biology Class 11 NEET Questions )
(A) kranz anatomy
(B) bundle sheath cells
(C) PEP as primary CO₂ acceptor
(D) all of these
Option d – all of these
Enzyme/s mainly involved in during formation of yogurt is/are
(A) Pyruvic acid dehydrogenase
(B) Alcohol dehydrogenase
(C) Lactate dehydrogenase
(D) both (A) and (C)
Option c – Lactate dehydrogenase
In pea plants, what is the probability of the formation of the ‘Yr’ gamete in a dihybrid cross (YYRR x yyrr)?
(A) 25%
(B) 40%
(C) 50%
(D) 100%
Option a – 25%
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