Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 MCQ for NEET. We covered all the Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 MCQ for NEET in this post for free so that you can practice well for the exam.
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MCQ on Biology for 11th Class Students
The antigen binding site in an antibody is found between
(A) two light chains
(B) two heavy chains
(C) one heavy and one light chain
(D) either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain
Option c – one heavy and one light chain
Larger biomass can be produced for obtaining a higher yield of desired protein by maintaining the cells in their ( Class 11 Biology MCQ )
(A) Log phase
(B) Lag phase
(C) Stationary phase
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Option a – Log phase
Viviparity is considered to be more evolved because
(A) the young ones are left on their own
(B) the young ones are protected by a thick shell
(C) the young ones are protected inside the mother’s body and are looked after they are born leading to more chances of survival
(D) the embryo takes a long time to develop
Option c – the young ones are protected inside the mother’s body and are looked after they are born leading to more chances of survival
Which one of the following statements is CORRECT with respect to AIDS? ( Class 11 Biology MCQ )
(A) HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected person.
(B) Drug addicts are the least susceptible to HIV infection.
(C) AIDS patients are being cured cent percent with proper care and nutrition.
(D) The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T-lymphocytes, thus reducing their numbers.
Option c – AIDS patients are being cured cent percent with proper care and nutrition.
Which of the following statement is TRUE for the given sentence: When ampicillin-resistant cells are spread on agar plates containing ampicillin, ……….. I. all cells will die. II. only transformants will grow. III. untransformed recipient cells will die. IV. untransformed recipient cells will grow and transformants will die.
(A) Only statement II
(B) Only statement IV
(C) Both statements II and III
(D) None of the statements
Option c – Both statements II and III
Which one of the following options is INCORRECT? ( Class 11 Biology MCQ )
(A) Hinge joint – between Humerus and Pectoral girdle
(B) Pivot joint – between atlas and axis
(C) Gliding joint – between the carpals
(D) Saddle joint – between carpals and metacarpals of thumb
Option a – Hinge joint – between Humerus and Pectoral girdle
(A) Bioethics
(B) Bioengineering
(C) Biopiracy
(D) Biopatenting
Option d – Biopatenting
Mark the CORRECT pair of muscles involved in normal breathing in humans. ( Class 11 Biology MCQ )
(A) External and internal intercostal muscles
(B) Diaphragm and abdominal muscles
(C) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
(D) Diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles
Option a – External and internal intercostal muscles
Read the following statement and choose the correct option. (I) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop is permeable to water. (II) Tubular cells secrete substances like H. K and ammonia into the filtrate. (III) Descending limb of the loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes. (IV) Conditional reabsorption of Na’ occurs in DCT. (V) PCT helps in maintaining the ionic balance of body fluids.
(A) I, IV, and V alone are correct
(B) II, III, and V alone are correct
(C) III, IV, and V alone are correct
(D) II, IV, and V alone are correct
Option d – II, IV, and V alone are correct
A cloning vector should possess s which of the following characters? I. Origin of replication (Ori) II. Ability to destroy the alien DNA III. Cloning site to link the alien DNA IV. The tumor-inducing plasmid Ti. V. Selectable marker. VI. Low molecular weight. The CORRECT combination is ( Class 11 Biology MCQ )
(A) I, II, IV, V, and VI
(B) I, III, V, and VI
(C) I, II, III, and IV
(D) II, III, IV and VI
Option b – I, III, V, and VI
Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene-rich food. i. Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene. ii. The photopigments are embedded in the membrane discs of the inner segment. iii. Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin A. iv. The retina is a light-absorbing part of all visual photopigments.
(A) i and ii
(B) i, iii and iv
(C) i and iii
(D) ii, iii and iv
Option b – i, iii and iv
Which of the following statement is NOT correct?
(A) Brunner’s glands are present in the submucosa of the stomach and secrete pepsinogen
(B) Goblet cells are present in the mucosa of the intestine and secrete mucus.
(C) Oxyntic cells are present in the mucosa of the stomach and secrete HCl.
(D) Acini are present in the pancreas and secrete carboxypeptidase.
Option a – Brunner’s glands are present in the submucosa of the stomach and secrete pepsinogen
Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by females. Choose the correct option from the statements given below: i. They are introduced into the uterus. They are placed to cover the cervical region. iii. They act as physical barriers to sperm entry. iv. They act as spermicidal agents. ( Class 11 Biology MCQ )
(A) i and ii
(B) i and iii
(C) ii and iii
(D) iii and iv
Option c – ii and iii
The flow of metabolites in a metabolic pathway is called ……. state of body constituents.
(A) constant
(B) interlinked
(C) homeostatic
(D) dynamic
Option d – dynamic
A typical fat molecule is made up of ( Class 11 Biology MCQ )
(A) one glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
(B) three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
(C) three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecule
(D) one glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
Option d – one glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
Morula is a developmental stage : ( Class 11 Biology MCQ )
(A) between the zygote and blastocyst
(B) between the blastocyst and gastrula
(C) after the implantation and parturition
(D) between implantation and parturition
Option a – between the zygote and blastocyst
If in a normally menstruating woman, menses occur on 5th April, what will be the expected date of ovulation?
(A) 10th April
(B) 18th April
(C) 29th April
(D) 14th April
Option b – 18th April
Spot the ODD one out from the following structures with reference to the male reproductive system.
(A) Rete testis
(B) Epididymis
(C) Vasa efferentia
(D) Isthmus
Option d – Isthmus
Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by : ( Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 MCQ for NEET )
(A) Platyhelminthes
(B) Aschelminthes
(C) Annelida
(D) Ctenophora
Option a – Platyhelminthes
Select the incorrectly matched pair from the following :
(A) Neurons – Nerve cells
(B) Fibroblast – Areolar tissue
(C) Osteocytes – Bone cells
(D) Chondrocytes – Smooth muscle cells
Option d – Chondrocytes – Smooth muscle cells
Perigynous flowers are found in ( Class 11 Biology MCQ )
(A) Cucumber
(B) China rose
(C) Rose
(D) Guava
Option c – Rose
At what stage of the cell cycle are histone proteins synthesized in a eukaryotic cell?
(A) During G₂ stage of prophase
(B) During S phase
(C) During entire prophase
(D) During telophase
Option b – During S phase
In a ring-girdled plant :
(A) the root dies first
(B) the shoot and root die together
(C) neither root nor shoot will die
(D) the shooter dies first
Option a – the root dies first
In some members of which of the following pairs of families, do pollen grains retain their viability for months after release?
(A) Rosaceae; Leguminosae
(B) Poaceae; Rosaceae
(C) Poaceae; Leguminosae
(D) Poaceae : Solanaceae
Option a – Rosaceae; Leguminosae
The result of the following reaction/ experiment carried out by Avery et al on Streptococcus pneumoniae has proved conclusively that DNA is the genetic material;
(A) Live ‘R’ strain + DNA from ‘S’ strain + DNase
(B) Heat killed ‘R’ strain + DNA from ‘S’ strain + DNase
(C) Live ‘R’ strain + DNA from ‘S’ strain + RNase
(D) Live ‘R’ strain + Denatured DNA of ‘S’ strain + protease
Option a – Live ‘R’ strain + DNA from ‘S’ strain + DNase
Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates, and Slime moulds are included in the kingdom
(A) Fungi
(B) Animalia
(C) Monera
(D) Protista
Option d – Protista
This provides brown color to the algae
(A) chlorophyll- a
(B) phycocyanin
(C) fucoxanthin
(D) chlorophyll-b
Option c – fucoxanthin
Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Parthenium is an endemic species of our country.
(B) African catfish are not a threat to indigenous catfishes.
(C) Steller’s Sea Cow is an extinct animal.
(D) Lantana is popularly known as carrot grass.
Option c – Steller’s Sea Cow is an extinct animal.
Which of the following is INCORRECT about algal blooms?
(A) An algal bloom is a result of the increased nutrient content of the water body.
(B) Algal bloom imparts a distinct odour as well as color to the water body.
(C) An algal bloom is non-toxic to humans and animals.
(D) Algal bloom deteriorates the water quality.
Option c – An algal bloom is non-toxic to humans and animals
A fully developed embryo ultimately becomes
(A) globular shaped
(B) heart shaped
(C) horse-shoe shaped
(D) kidney shaped
Option c – horse-shoe shaped
Select the CORRECT group of biocontrol agents.
(A) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma
(B) Nostoc, Azospirillium, Nucleopolyhedrovirus
(C) Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco mosaic virus, Aphids
(D) Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus thuringiensis
Option d – Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus thuringiensis
The ‘niche’ of a species is meant for
(A) habitat and specific functions of a species
(B) specific place where an organism lives
(C) specific species function and its competitive power
(D) none of these
Option a – habitat and specific functions of a species
In the equation GPP – R = NPP R represents :
(A) Respiration losses
(B) Radiant energy
(C) Retardation factor
(D) Environmental factor
Option a – Respiration losses
Select the option which is NOT correct with respect to enzyme action.
(A) Substrate blinds with enzymes at their active site.
(B) Addition of a lot of succinates does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate.
(C) A non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzymes at a site distinct from that which binds the substrate.
(D) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase.
Option b – Addition of a lot of succinates does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate.
Which one of the following statements regarding post-fertilization development in flowering plants is INCORRECT?
(A) Central cell develops into endosperm
(B) Ovules develop into the embryo sac
(C) Ovary develops into fruit
(D) Zygote develops into an embryo.
Option b – Ovules develop into the embryo sac
Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to AIDS?
(A) HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected person.
(B) Drug addicts are the least susceptible to HIV infection.
(C) AIDS patients are being cured cent percent with proper care and nutrition.
(D) The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T-lymphocytes, thus reducing their numbers
Option d – The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T-lymphocytes, thus reducing their numbers
RNA interference which is employed in making tobacco plants resistant to Meloidogyne incognita is essentially involved in ………
(A) preventing the process of translation of mRNA
(B) preventing the process of transcription
(C) preventing the process of replication of DNA
(D) preventing the process of splicing of hnRNA
Option a – preventing the process of translation of mRNA
Metameric segmentation is the characteristic of
(A) Echinodermata and Annelida
(B) Annelida and Arthropoda
(C) Mollusca and Chordata
(D) Platyhelminthes and Arthropoda
Option b – Annelida and Arthropoda
The transition state structure of the substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is
(A) transient but stable
(B) permanent but unstable
(C) transient and unstable
(D) permanent and stable
Option c – transient and unstable
What is common among amylase, rennin, and trypsin?
(A) These all are proteins.
(B) These all are proteolytic enzymes.
(C) These are produced in the stomach.
(D) These act at a pH lower than 7.
Option a – These all are proteins.
Frog excretes ……. whereas tadpole excretes ………
(A) Ammonia, Urea
(B) Urea, Ammonia
(C) Urea, Uric acid
(D) Uric acid, Ammonia
Option b – Urea, Ammonia
The sarcomere is the functional unit of contraction in a muscle fiber. Identify the portion of myofibril that constitutes a sarcomere.
(A) The portion of myofibril between two successive ‘A’ bands.
(B) The portion of myofibril between two successive ‘Z’ bands.
(C) The portion of myofibril between two successive ‘M’ bands.
(D) The portion of myofibril between two successive ‘I’ bands.
Option b – The portion of myofibril between two successive ‘Z’ bands.
What is NOT true about the purpose of vaccination?
(A) It prevents the entry of pathogenic germs into the body.
(B) It increases the level of resistance of the body by increasing the quantum of specific antibodies.
(C) With secondary infection, there is a prompt spurt of the production of specific antibodies.
(D) Even with a second attack, the virulence of the disease is lowered very much.
Option a – It prevents the entry of pathogenic germs into the body.
Select the mismatched pair from the following
(A) Oxytocin – Contraction of uterine muscles
(B) Insulin – Gluconeogenesis
(C) Prolactin – Milk production in mammary glands
(D) Glucagon – Glycogenolysis
Option b – Insulin – Gluconeogenesis
The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained in the rods type of photoreceptor cell of the human eyes is a derivative of
(A) vitamin C
(B) vitamin D
(C) vitamin A
(D) vitamin B
Option c – vitamin A
The hormones involved in maintaining calcium balance in the human body are
(A) PTH and TCT
(B) PTH and LTH
(C) TCT and FSH
(D) MSH and ACTH
Option a – PTH and TCT
The signals for the parturition process originate from
(A) muscles of the uterus
(B) a fully developed foetus and placenta
(C) the placenta
(D) hormones of the ovaries and uterus
Option b – a fully developed foetus and placenta
Genetic drift describes
(A) the change in frequency of a gene merely by chance in a small population.
(B) the change in frequency of a gene that occurs merely by selection.
(C) the change in frequency of a gene that occurs merely by selection and chance.
(D) the change in frequency of a gene that does not influence it to any extent.
Option a – the change in frequency of a gene merely by chance in a small population.
According to Medical Termination Amendment Act, 2017 i. Pregnancy can be terminated on certain grounds, within the first 12 weeks the opinion of pregnancy on one medical practitioner. ii. MTP can be done if the continuation would of pregnancy involves risk to the life of the pregnant woman. MTP can be carried out even after 30 weeks of pregnancy. iv. Medical termination of pregnancy is not allowed even if it is harmful to the mother due to the ethical, and moral issues involved in it.
(A) i and ii are correct.
(B) ii and iv are correct.
(C) i and iv are incorrect.
(D) ii and iii are incorrect.
Option a – i and ii are correct.
Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy?
(A) Six weeks
(B) Eight weeks
(C) Twelve weeks
(D) Eighteen week
Option c – Twelve weeks
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