NEET Questions on Work Power Energy. We covered all the NEET Questions on Work Power Energy in this post for free so that you can practice well for the exam.
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NEET Questions on Work Power Energy for Students
What is the sign of the work performed on an object in uniform circular motion?
(a) Zero
(b) Positive
(c) Negative
(d) Depends on the particular situation
Option a – Zero
A constant force of 10 N causes a box to move at a constant speed of 2 m/s. How much work is done in 10 seconds?
(a) 200 J
(b) 50 J
(c) 10 J
(d) 2 J
Option a – 200 J
An object of 2 kg is moving with a velocity of 5 m/s. If its velocity is doubled, the kinetic energy will become
(a) 100 J
(b) 25 J
(c) 200 J
(d) 2.5 J
Option b – 25 J
A mass is kept stationary by an external force. All of the following are true except
(a) the point of application of the force does not move
(b) no work is done on the mass
(c) there is no net force on the mass
(d) the external force may perform work on the mass
The sum of the change in kinetic and potential energy y is always
(a) zero
(b) positive
(c) negative
(d) None of the above
Option a – zero
A man of a mass of 80 kg runs up a staircase in 12 seconds. Another man B of mass 60 kg runs up the same staircase in 11 seconds. The ratio of powers of A and B is
(a) 11:12
(b) 11: 9
(c) 12:11
(d) 9:11
Option b – 11: 9
A lorry and a car moving with the same K.E. are brought to rest by applying the same retarding force, then
(a) the lorry will come to rest at a shorter distance
(b) the car will come to rest at a shorter distance
(c) both come to rest at the same distance
(d) None of the above
Option c – both come to rest at the same distance
A weight-lifter lifts 200 kg from the ground to a height of 2 meters in 9 seconds. The average power generated by the man is
(a) 15680 W
(b) 3920 W
(c) 1960 W
(d) 980 W
Option d – 980 W
The gravitational potential energy of an object will
(a) increase by increasing the path along which the object is moved
(b) decrease by increasing the path along which the object is moved
(c) not affected by changing the path, provided the overall height is the same
(d) None of these
Option c – not affected by changing the path, provided the overall height is the same
A block of weight W has pulled a distance & along a horizontal table. The work done by the weight is
(a) Wl
(b) 0
(c) Wgl
(d) Wl/g
Option b – 0
The unit of energy is
(a) same as the unit of work
(b) joule
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Option c – Both (a) and (b)
The proper care and maintenance of machines require
(a) to make them good looking
(b) preserving them for the future.
(c) for their efficient and longer use
(d) None of these
Option c – for their efficient and longer use
Solar cookers are used
(a) to cook our food
(b) in artificial satellites
(c) to convert into electrical energy
(d) in drying clothes and other materials
Option a – to cook our food
What is the sign of the work done by gravity on a man standing on a platform?
(a) Zero
(b) Positive
(c) Negative
(d) Depends on the particular situation
Option a – Zero
A body at rest can have
(a) speed
(b) energy
(c) momentum
(d) velocity
Option b – energy
An electrical appliance of 500 W is used for 5 hours per day. Energy consumed in 30 days will be
(a) 2.5 kW h
(b) 25 kW h
(c) 75 kW h
(d) None of these
Option c – 75 kW h
When a freely falling object hits the ground, its kinetic energy is
(a) Converted into heat energy
(b) Used to form a crater in the ground
(c) Collides and then rebounds
(d) Any of the three is possible
Option c – Collides and then rebounds
A man pushes a wall and fails to displace it. he does
(a) negative work
(b) positive but not maximum work
(c) no work at all
(d) Maximum work
Option c – no work at all
If the force and displacement of the particle in direction of force are doubled. Work would be
(a) double
(b) four-time
(c) half
(d) 1/4 times
Option b – four-time
Which of the following force(s) is/are non-conservative?
(a) Frictional force
(b) Spring force
(c) Elastic force
(d) All of these
Option a – Frictional force
The energy stored in the wounded spring watch is
(a) K.E.
(b) P.E.
(d) chemical energy
Option b – P.E.
The rate of doing work is termed as
(a) force
(b) mechanical energy
(c) power
(d) momentum
Option c – power
The energy of 4900 J was expanded by lifting a 50 kg mass. The mass was raised to a height of
(a) 10m
(b) 98m
(c) 960 m
(d) 245000 m
Option a – 10m
When a stone is thrown upward to a certain height, it possesses
(a) potential energy
(b) kinetic energy
(c) wind energy
(d) sound energy
Option a – potential energy
The capacity of doing work is termed as
(a) pressure
(b) energy
(c) force
(d) displacement
Option b – energy
A fast wind can turn the blades of a windmill because it possesses
(a) potential energy
(b) kinetic energy
(c) chemical energy
(d) heat energy
Option a – potential energy
The potential energy of your body is minimum when
(a) you are standing
(b) you are sitting on a chair
(c) you are sitting on the ground
(d) you lie down on the ground
Option d – you lie down on the ground
A body of mass 2 kg is dropped from a height of 1 m. Its kinetic energy as it touches the ground is
(a) 19.6 N
(b) 19.6 J
(c) 19.6 kg
(d) 19.6 m
Option b – 19.6 J
A negative value of work done indicates that
(a) force and displacement are in the same direction
(b) more than one force is acting on the object
(c) displacement and force are in opposite directions
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Option d – Both (b) and (c)
Work done is zero/when
(a) force and displacement of the body are in the same direction
(b) force and displacement of the body are in the opposite direction
(c) the force acting on the body is perpendicular to the direction of the displacement of the body
(d) None of these
Option c – the force acting on the body is perpendicular to the direction of the displacement of the body
The unit of work done is
(a) Joule
(b) Newton meter
(c) Calorie
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Option d – Both (a) and (b)
The kinetic energy of a body moving with a speed of 10 m/s is 30J. If its speed becomes 30 m/s, its kinetic energy will be
(a) 10 J
(b) 90 J
(c) 180 J
(d) 270 J
Option d – 270 J
When you compress a coil spring you do work on it. The elastic potential energy
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) disappears
(d) remains the same
Option a – increases
No work is done when
(a) a nail is plugged into a wooden board
(b) a box is pushed along a horizontal floor
(c) there is no component of force parallel to the direction of motion
(d) there is no component of force normal to the direction of force
Option d – there is no component of force normal to the direction of force
Work done by a force can be
(a) only positive
(b) only negative
(c) both positive and negative
(d) None of these
Option b – only negative
Which is not a unit of energy?
(a) Watt’s second
(b) Kilowatt hour
(c) Watt
(d) Joule
Option c – Watt
A stone of mass 1 kg is raised through 1m height
(a) The loss of gravitational potential energy by the stone is 1 joule
(b) The gain of gravitational potential energy by the stone is 1 joule
(c) The loss of gravitational potential energy is 9.8 joule
(d) The gain of gravitational potential energy is 9.8 joule
Option d – The gain of gravitational potential energy is 9.8 joule
The scientific concept of work suggests that work is said to be done if
(a) a force acts on an object
(b) the object must be displaced
(c) energy must be consumed
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Option d – Both (a) and (b)
The kinetic energy of a body will become eight times if
(a) its mass is made four times
(b) its velocity is made four times
(c) both the mass and velocity are doubled
(d) both the mass and velocity are made four times
Option c – both the mass and velocity are doubled
For a body falling freely under gravity from a height.
(a) only the potential energy goes on increasing
(b) only the kinetic energy goes on increasing
(c) both kinetic energy as well as potential energy go on increasing
(d) the kinetic energy goes on increasing while potential energy goes on decreasing
Option d – the kinetic energy goes on increasing while potential energy goes on decreasing
Work done is defined as
(a) the product of force and displacement
(b) the distance through which the object is moved
(c) the mass of the object getting displaced
(d) the product of force and mass
Option a – the product of force and displacement
If a force F is applied on a body and it moves with velocity v, the power will be
(a) Fv
(b) F/v
(c) Fv²
(d) F/v²
Option a – Fv
To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium? 1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium. 2. On the basis of the per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium. 3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Option a – 1 only
Consider the following statements: 1. 10 Nuclear Power Plants in India come under the AERB (Atomic energy regulatory Board). 2. Meckani committee recommended that the Nuclear Regulator be created as a statutory Body. 3. Kudankulam Nuclear Project will operate by AERB. Which of the above statement is true?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Option a – 1 and 2
Consider the following statements: 1. Cobalt – 60 was leaked when a worker cut open a piece of metal in a Delhi market this cobalt-60 is used for medical purposes, industrial radiography for non-destructive testing, and in the food processing industry for irradiation process. 2. The Atomic Energy (AERB) is Regulatory Board meant to maintain a “Cradle System to keep a to grave” track of such equipment, including through on-site inspection. Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above.
Option c – Both 1 and 2
Most of the sources of energy we use represent stored solar energy. Which of the following is not ultimately derived from the Sun’s energy?
(a) geothermal energy
(b) wind energy
(c) nuclear energy
(d) biomass.
Option c – nuclear energy
Which of the following power plant cause maximum long-term hazards to the environment & us if destroyed or leaked abruptly?
(a) Hydroelectric
(b) Thermal
(c) Nuclear
(d) Wind
Option c – Nuclear
In an atomic explosion, enormous energy is released which is due to the :
(a) Conversion of neutrons into protons
(b) Conversion of chemical energy into heat energy
(c) Conversion of mechanical energy into Nuclear energy
(d) Conversion of mass into energy
Option d – Conversion of mass into energy
The correct order of the countries from top to bottom in the Nuclear Safety Index is 1. Belarus 2. France 3, Israel 4. The U.K.
(a) 2, 4, 3 and 1
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 1
(c) 4, 1, 2 and 3
(d) 4, 3, 2 and 1
Option c – 4, 1, 2 and 3
Identify the correct statement(s): 1. The Department of Atomic Energy is directly under the Prime Minister of India. 2. The Rajasthan Atomic Power Station (RAPS) is the largest power-producing nuclear site.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
Option d – None
Consider the following statements: 1. India has 10 Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) 2. The spent fuel from the PHWRS is reprocessed into plutonium. 3. All imported reactors are under the safeguards of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Option c – 2 and 3
Consider the following statements in relation to nuclear reactors and choose the correct alternative: 1. The Pressurized Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR) uses natural Uranium as the Fuel. 2. The Fast Breader Reactor (FBR) uses liquid Sodium as the moderator. 3. The Advanced Heavy Water Reactor (AHWR) will be based on U233 as the Fuel. 4. The French Company Areva is building the European Pressurized Reactors (EPR) at Jaitapur in Maharashtra.
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Option a – 1, 3 and 4
The stages of India’s Nuclear Power Programme differ with respect to 1. Fuel used 2. Technology 3. Stage of development
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) All
Option d – All
Consider the following Statements: 1. The Fast Breeder Test Reactor (FBTR) is at the heart of the Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR) at kalpakkam, and it is a forerunner to the second stage of the country’s nuclear power program. 2. Fast Reactors use “Fast” (high energy) neutrons to sustain the fission process, in contrast to water-cooled reactors that use thermal (low energy) neutrons. Fast reactors are commonly known as breeders because they breed more fuel than they consume. Which of the above statements is /are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Option c – Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Option d – 1, 2 and 3
Consider the following statements 1. India has 10 Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs). 2. The spent fuel from the PHWRS is reprocessed into plutonium. 3. All imported reactors are under the safeguards of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these
Option b – Only 2
In the case of a nuclear disaster which of the following options for cooling the nuclear reactors may be adopted? 1. Pumping of water into the reactors. 2. Use of boric acid. 3. Taking out the fuel rods and keeping them in a cooling pond. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these
Option b – 1 and 2
To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium? 1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium. 2. On the basis of the per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium. 3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Option d – 1, 2 and 3
Consider the following statements: 1. The Nuclear Suppliers Group has 24 countries as its members. India is a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 both
(d) None
Option c – 1 and 2 both
Consider the following statements: 1. United States-India Peaceful Atomic Energy Cooperation Act, 2006 was named in honor of the Chairman of the House Committee on International Relations. 2. About 25% of the world’s total thorium reserves are in India, Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 both
(d) None
Option c – 1 and 2 both
Non-nuclear weapons of mass destruction
(a) are far less dangerous than nuclear weapons, so the international community is trying to eliminate nuclear weapons first.
(b) include chemical and biological weapons, which have been around for decades.
(c) are much easier to keep track of than nuclear weapons.
(d) are more difficult to build than nuclear weapons, so fewer states have them.
Option b – include chemical and biological weapons, which have been around for decades
India is an important member of the ‘International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor’. If this experiment succeeds, what is the immediate advantage for India?
(a) It can use thorium in place of uranium for power generation
(b) It can attain a global role in satellite navigation
(c) It can drastically improve the efficiency of its fission reactors in power generation
(d) It can build fusion reactors for power generation
Option d – It can build fusion reactors for power generation
Which one of the following metals are alloyed with sodium to transfer heat in a nuclear reactor?
(a) Potassium
(b) Calcium
(c) Magnesium
(d) Strontium
Option a – Potassium
In the year 2008, which one of the following conducted a complex scientific experiment in which sub-atomic particles were accelerated to nearly the speed of light?
(a) European Space Agency
(b) European Organization for Nuclear Research
(c) International Atomic Energy Agency
(d) National Aeronautics and Space administration
Option b – European Organization for Nuclear Research
A moderator is used in nuclear reactors in order to
(a) slow down the speed of the neutrons
(b) accelerate the neutrons
(c) increase the number of neutrons
(d) decrease the number of neutrons
Option d – decrease the number of neutrons
Nuclear energy is released in fission since binding energy per nucleon is
(a) sometimes larger and sometimes smaller
(b) larger for fission fragments than for parent nucleus
(c) same for fission fragments and nucleus
(d) smaller for fission fragments than for parent nucleus
Option b – larger for fission fragments than for parent nucleus
Fusion reactions take place at high temperatures because
(a) atoms are ionized at high temperatures
(b) molecules break up at high temperatures
(c) nuclei break up at high temperatures
(d) kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the repulsion between nuclei
Option d – kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the repulsion between nuclei
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Minister of Science & Technology
(d) A professional with extensive experience in atomic energy
Option d – A professional with extensive experience in atomic energy
Heat is generated in a nuclear reactor (thermal) by ( work and energy MCQ )
(a) Combustion of a nuclear fuel e.g. uranium.
(b) Fusion of atoms of uranium.
(c) Absorption of neutrons in uranium atoms.
(d) Fission of U-235 by neutrons.
Option d – Fission of U-235 by neutrons
The substance used as a moderator and coolant, in nuclear reactors is
(a) Ordinary water
(b) Heavy water
(c) Liquid Ammonia
(d) Liquid Hydrogen
Option b – Heavy water
(a) Steam Energy
(b) Solar Energy
(c) Thermal Energy
(d) Nuclear Energy
Option d – Nuclear Energy
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