World Physical Geography MCQ. We covered all the World Physical Geography MCQ in this post so that you can prepare and practice well for all the competitive exams that cover the Geography syllabus using the below MCQs.
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World Physical Geography MCQ Practice Bits for Students
Hail consists of
1. granular ice
2. crystals of ice
3. water droplets
4. masses of ice with concentric layers
Option 4 – masses of ice with concentric layers
Rainfall caused due to the presence of mountains in the way of winds is called
1. orographic rain
2. cyclonic rain
3. convectional rain
4. advectional rain
Option 1 – orographic rain
Dew is caused when
1. humid air condenses on cool surface
2. the air is colder than the earth’s surface
3. the sky is overcast at night
4. the wind is too dry to cause rainfall
Option 1 – humid air condenses on cool surface
Where is the famous Tuscarora Deep located?
1. near USA
2. off Japan
3. off Lakshadweep
4. near the Australian coast
Option 2 – off Japan
Which compound is the most abundant in sea water?
1. calcium carbonate
2. potassium chloride
3. sodium chloride
4. magnesium sulphate
Option 3 – sodium chloride
The general weather associated with an anti cyclone is
1. Hot and Wet
2. Fine and dry
3. Cold and severe
4. Stromy associated with torrential down pour
Option 2 – Fine and dry
What is Gulf Stream?
1. a cold current in the Atlantic Ocean
2. a cold current in the Pacific Ocean
3. a warm current in the Atlantic Ocean
4. a warm current in the Pacific Ocean
Option 3 – a warm current in the Atlantic Ocean
When humidity is expressed as a percentage, it is called
1. relative humidity
2. absolute humidity
3. specific humidity
4. percentage humidity
Option 1 – relative humidity
Which of the following clouds are more commonly formed in the equitorial rainforests
1. Cumulonimbus
2. Stratocumulus
3. Nimbostratus
4. Alto cumulus
Option 1 – Cumulonimbus
What is meant by the term ‘cirrus’?
1. a low cloud
2. a rain-bearing cloud
3. a high cloud
4. a hail-bearing cloud
Option 3 – a high cloud
What is fog?
1. a cumulonimbus cloud
2. a low stratus cloud
3. a cirro stratus cloud
4. an altocumulus cloud
Option 2 – a low stratus cloud
Farrel’s Law is concerned with the winds
1. direction of winds
2. velocity of winds
3. intensity of waves
4. none of these.
Option 1 – direction of winds
Blizzards are characteristic of …… region.
1. equatorial
2. tropical
3. antarctic
4. temperate
Option 3 – antarctic
Which of the following is not a “greenhouse” gas?
1. Water vapour
2. Carbon dioxide
3. CFCs
4. Nitrogen
Option 4 – Nitrogen
What is a cyclone?
1. a low pressure system with clockwise winds in the northern hemisphere
2. a high pressure system with anticlock-wise winds in the northern hemisphere
3. a low pressure system with anticlock-wise winds in the northern hemisphere
4. a high pressure system with clockwise winds in the northern hemisphere.
Option 3 – a low pressure system with anticlock-wise winds in the northern hemisphere
Which one is an anticyclone?
1. a low pressure system with clockwise winds in the northern hemisphere
2. high pressure system with clockwise winds in the northern hemisphere
3. low pressure system with clockwise winds in southern hemisphere
4. high pressure system with clockwise winds in southern hemisphere
Option 2 – high pressure system with clockwise winds in the northern hemisphere
An upper air wind system with very high velocities in certain parts of the atmosphere is called
1. a cyclone
2. an anticyclone
3. monsoon
4. jet stream
Option 4 – jet stream
What is a tornado?
1. a very high pressure centre
2. a very low pressure centre
3. a very high ocean wave
4. a planetary wind
Option 2 – a very low pressure centre
Which of the following places has the highest tidal range ?
1. Bay of Biscay
2. Gulf of Ob
3. Bay of Fundy
4. Okha
Option 3 – Bay of Fundy
The process of change of state of water from solid directly into vapour is called
1. condensation
2. snow fall
3. sublimation
4. precipitation
Option 3 – sublimation
The difference in the duration of day and night increases as one moves from the …… to the …..
1. Equator, poles
2. Poles, equator
3. Tropic of Cancer, equator
4. Tropic of Cancer, Tropic of Capricorn
Option 1 – Equator, poles
What causes the wind to deflect toward the left in the Southern hemisphere?
1. Temperature
2. Magnetic field
3. Rotation of the earth
4. Pressure
Option 3 – Rotation of the earth
The South Pole experiences continuous light at the time of
1. Winter solstice
2. summer solstice
3. vernal equinox
4. autumnal equinox
Option 1 – Winter solstice
A day is added when one crosses
1. The equator from north to south
2. 180° longitude from west to east
3. 180° longitude east to west
4. the equator from south to north
Option 3 – 180° longitude east to west
In order of their distances from the Sun, which of the following planets lie between Mars and Uranus?
1. Earth and Jupiter
2. Jupiter and Saturn
3. Saturn and Earth
4. Saturn and Neptune
Option 2 – Jupiter and Saturn
Selene-1, the lunar orbiter mission belongs to which one of the following ?
1. China
2. European Union
3. Japan
4. USA
Option 3 – Japan
The longest day in Australia will be on
1. June 21
2. September 22
3. December 22
4. March 23
Option 3 – December 22
The minimum distance between the sun and the earth occurs on
1. December 22
2. June 21
3. September 22
4. January 3
Option 4 – January 3
On the day the sun is nearest to the earth, the earth is said to be in
1. aphelion
2. perihelion
3. apogee
4. perigee
Option 2 – perihelion
The earth is at its maximum distance from the sun on
1. July 4
2. January 30
3. September 22
4. December 22
Option 1 – July 4
The rate of rotation of the earth on its axis is highest on
1. January 3
2. December 22
3. July 4
4. It never changes
Option 4 – It never changes
What is the International Date Line?
1. It is the equator.
2. It is the 0° longitude.
3. It is the 90° east longitude
4. It is the 180° longitude.
Option 4 – It is the 180° longitude.
What is the relationship between solar day and sidereal day?
1. Both are equal
2. Solar day is longer than sidereal day
3. Solar day is shorter than sidereal day
4. There is no relationship between the two
Option 2 – Solar day is longer than sidereal day
One Astronomical Unit is the average distance between
1. Earth and the Sun
2. Earth and the Moon
3. Jupiter and the Sun
4. Pluto and the Sun
Option 1 – Earth and the Sun
How much of the surface of the moon is visible from the earth?
1. more than 75%
2. only about 40%
3. about 59%
4. about 65%
Option 3 – about 59%
What is the unit of measurement of the distances of stars from the earth?
1. light year
2. fathoms
3. nautical miles
4. kilometers
Option 1 – light year
On the surface of the moon, the
1. mass and weight become lesser
2. mass remains constant and only the weight is lesser
3. only the mass is lesser
4. mass and weight both remain unchanged.
Option 2 – mass remains constant and only the weight is lesser
Which comet appears every 76 years?
1. Hailey’s
2. Holme’s
3. Donati’s
4. Alpha Centauri
Option 1 – Hailey’s
The moon’s period of revolution with reference to the sun is
1. equal to one solar month
2. equal to one sidereal month
3. equal to one synodic month
4. none of these
Option 3 – equal to one synodic month
Choose the odd one from the following:
(a) Tarapur
(b) Narora
(c) Trombay
(d) Kalpakkam
Option d – Kalpakkam
Consider the following pairs:
- Ashok Leyland – Hinduja Group
- Hindalco – A.V. Birla Group Industries
- Suzlon Energy – Punj Llyod Group
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Option b – 2 only
Consider the following pairs:
National Highway – Cities
- NH 4 – Chennai and Hyderabad
- NH 6 – Mumbai and Kolkata
- NH 15 – Ahmedabad and Jodhpur
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Option d – None
Which one of the following numbered Rajdhani trains covers the longest distance?
(a) 12433 – Chennai Central
(b) 12435 – Dibrugarh Town Junction
(c) 12429 – Bangalore City
(d) 12431 – Trivandrum Central
Option d – 12431 – Trivandrum Central
A state in India has the following characteristics:
- Its northern part is arid and semi-arid.
- Its central part produces cotton.
- Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.
Which of the following states has all of the above characteristics?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Karnataka
Option a – Gujarat
Consider the following:
- Adjutant stork
- Emperor penguin
- Raffle snake
Which of these is/are naturally found in India?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Option a – 1 only
- Deepening the Malacca Straits between Malaysia and Indonesia
- Opening a new canal across the Kra Isthmus between the Gulf of Siam and the Andaman Sea
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Option b – 2 only
Arrange the following Indian states in chronological order according to their formation and select the correct answer:
- Chhattisgarh
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Jharkhand
- Sikkim
Codes:
(a) 4, 1, 3, 2
(b) 4, 2, 1, 3
(c) 3, 2, 1, 4
(d) 1, 4, 2, 3
Option b – 4, 2, 1, 3
Consider the following rivers:
- Barak
- Lohit
- Subansiri
Which of these flows through Arunachal Pradesh?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Option b – 2 and 3 only
Consider the following pairs:
Hills – Region
- Garo Hills – Northeast India
- Javadi Hills – Central India
- Maikal Hills – South India
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Option a – 1 only
Consider the following pairs:
Hills – Region
- Cardamom Hills – Coromandel Coast
- Kaimur Hills – Konkan Coast
- Mahadeo Hills – Central India
- Mikir Hills – Northeast India
Which of these pairs are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Option c – 3 and 4
Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Assam – Itanagar
(b) Nagaland – Shillong
(c) Manipur – Imphal
(d) Arunachal Pradesh – Guwahati
Option c – Manipur – Imphal
The newly formed state of Telangana is surrounded by:
(a) 5 states
(b) 6 states
(c) 3 states
(d) 4 states
Option a – 5 states
Arrange the following popular hill stations of India in terms of their height from highest to lowest from the mean sea level:
- Mussoorie
- Shimla
- Ooty
- Darjeeling
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2-4-1-3
(b) 3-2-4-1
(c) 3-1-4-2
(d) 2-3-4-1
Option d – 2-3-4-1
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Dam/Lake – River
(a) Govind Sagar – Sutlej
(b) Kolleru Lake – Krishna
(c) Wular Lake – Jhelum
(d) Ukai Reservoir – Tapi
Option b – Kolleru Lake – Krishna
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of basins of major rivers of India beginning from South to North?
- Tapi
- Godavari
- Ganga
- Kaveri
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 4-2-1-3
(b) 2-4-1-3
(c) 4-1-2-3
(d) 2-1-4-3
Option d – 2-1-4-3
Consider the following pairs:
- Dampa Tiger Reserve – Mizoram
- Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary – Sikkim
- Saramati Peak – Nagaland
Which of the above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Option c – 1 and 3 only
Which among the following means of transport in India carries the maximum number of passengers during a year?
(a) Indian Railway
(b) Telco buses
(c) Ashok Leyland buses
(d) International water transport
Option a – Indian Railway
Which of the following does not demarcate any part of India’s international boundary?
(a) Sir Creek line
(b) McMohan line
(c) Durand line
(d) Redcliffe line
Option c – Durand line
What is the stage in the population cycle in which India is classified on the basis of its demographic characteristics?
(a) Declining stage
(b) Early expanding stage
(c) High stationary stage
(d) Late expanding stage
Option d – Late expanding stage
Tummalapalli in Andhra Pradesh has recently come on the world map for its largest:
(a) Coal deposits
(b) Uranium deposits
(c) Bauxite ore deposits
(d) Uranium deposits
Option b – Uranium deposits
Where is the Tala Hydroelectric Project, which is expected to generate 1000 MW of power, located?
(a) Nepal
(b) Bhutan
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Option b – Bhutan
Farakka Barrage was commissioned to:
(a) Supply drinking water to Kolkata
(b) Save Kolkata port
(c) Divert water to Bangladesh
(d) Link North and South Bengal
Option b – Save Kolkata port
Surat is situated on the banks of which river?
(a) Bhima
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Tapti
(d) Godavari
Option c – Tapti
The Cogntrix Power Project is located in:
(a) Kerala
(b) Gujarat
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Karnataka
Option d – Karnataka
What is the approximate length of Konkan Railway?
(a) 580 kms
(b) 940 kms
(c) 1050 kms
(d) 760 km
Option b – 940 kms
Where in India is the biggest steel manufacturer of the world (L. N. Mittal Group) setting up a steel plant?
(a) Bihar
(b) Orissa
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Jharkhand
Option d – Jharkhand
Approximately what is the length of rail-route open to traffic in India?
(a) 25000 kms
(b) 48000 kms
(c) 63000 kms
(d) 78000 km
Option c – 63000 kms
Which of the following is correctly matched with regard to thermal power projects?
(a) Kawas – Gujarat
(b) Korba – Uttar Pradesh
(c) Talchar – Andhra Pradesh
(d) Ramagundam – Madhya Pradesh
Option a – Kawas – Gujarat
Which of the following industries most closely approximates the perfectly competitive model?
(a) Cigarette
(b) Newspaper
(c) Automobile
(d) Wheat farming
Option d – Wheat farming
If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi, then it is:
(a) Internal trade
(b) Free trade
(c) International trade
(d) Territorial trade
Option a – Internal trade
The state which occupies the first place in India in the production of tobacco is:
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) West Bengal
Option a – Andhra Pradesh
River Damodar is called the ‘Sorrow of Bengal’ because it:
(a) Causes maximum soil erosion
(b) Is not a perennial river
(c) Forms a number of dangerous waterfalls
(d) Gets flooded after causing havoc
Option d – Gets flooded after causing havoc
We covered all the World Physical Geography MCQ in this post above so that you can practice as well as prepare for all the competitive exams that cover the Geography syllabus.
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